Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 00:27
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
For the First Time, Scientists Spot Water Around a Young Star Similar to Our Sun - The Daily Galaxy
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What is the most heartbreaking thing your child has told you?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Why are American women so ugly nowadays?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?